Assalamu `alaikum everyone,
Allow me to begin by making clear that I am not with Bok on this issue, which is to say, I do not share Bok's view.
But I must also say that I find it objectionable that our discourse has become so authoritarian that one has to make such a disclaimer to save one’s self from having their reputation absolutely ravaged.
Such are our times, unfortunately. It seems Muslims can no longer encounter minority opinions (even if very small minority views) with which we are not familiar, without resorting to sanctimonious language. It is not enough for us to present our view and our disagreements respectfully. We must warn everyone else to fear Allah (since it seems holding a dissenting view somehow means you lack
taqwa). We must speak of clarifying “the
haqq from the
batil”. We must talk of “crushing the
mukar”.
Some of the stuff in this thread is even worse. It’s heading towards rancid.
However, the fact that I disagree with Bok’s position, and in this case, agree with Br Tawfique’s does not mean I think Br Tawfique's analysis does not have some very curious features, to which I will come in due course.
But first:
"AbuAbu said:
Why isn't he a Sheikh? His sheikhs think he is a sheikh and that is why they have given him ijaza including in hanbali fiqh which is the madhab from which you attempted to argue your case.
At this point, I'm not about to enter the who-is-a-sheikh argument because I think it is purile and, ultimately, self-defeating.
But it seems to me that the original post was not arguing from a Hanbali basis. In fact, it wasn't arguing at all. It merely provided some references and said maybe there's more evidence than we think for the alternative view. Bok may have stated the view that a woman could lead men in prayer, but the actual post was not Bok's - it was from someone else who didn't advocate a position. In fact, that original post explicitly said:
Quote
Although the practice of women leading prayer is not commonly accepted, one cannot conclude that it is prohibited without first conducting honest and unbiased research into this matter.
Doesn't sound like asserting a concluded view to me.
But even if we assume (erroneously) that it was advocating a position - how was it proceeding from a Hanbali basis? It mentoined Ahmad bin Hanbal and ibn Taymiyyah only in passing. The strongest support was really taken from at-Tabari and ath-Thawri.
Now - I would relish it if anyone could explain to me how on Earth the invocation of at-Tabari could be seen as an appeal to the Hanbali
madhhab. The Hanbalis were his staunch opponents who often persecuted him in Baghdad because they felt he was disrespectful to ibn Hanbal himself (at-Tabari claimed that ibn Hanbal was a
muhaddith, not a jurist). They would prevent people from seeing him, and one report even says that upon his death, some Hanbali students burned his books and buried his body in an unmarked Christian grave. Put simply, he was hardly a bedfellow of the Hanbalis.
Is it suprising then, that someone claiming an
ijaza in Habali
fiqh would disagree with his view so vehemently?
The only person, it seems, coming from a Hanbali perspective, is Br Tawfique himself. That’s fine – I have no objection to the Hanbali
madhhab – but it does raise some very interesting questions.
For example, if Br Tawfique is stating a Hanbali view, why is his discourse so absolutist? That is, why is he not simply stating the Hanbali position, as opposed to purporting to speak for all Islamic thought?
But perhaps even more curious, is the legal theory used to construct his argument. For example, I don’t understand why a Hanbali would say that the only legitimate sources of Islamic jurisprudence are the Qur’an, the
sunnah,
ijma` and
qiyas as though that were a definitive, universal truth.
I could understand that coming from a Shafi`i, because that is precisely the Shafi`i formulation of
usul. But every other
madhhab refers to other juristic sources, including the Hanbalis themselves. Why, for example, does not Br Tawfique refer to that oft-invoked Habali principle (also used by some Malikis) of
sadd adh-dhara`i? What of
maslaha, which is also used (to differing degrees and in differing ways) by all three mainstream non-Shafi`i
madhahib?
And why does he give such a pasting to
istihsan when that has also found use in Hanbali
usul? True, ash-Shafi`i didn’t think much of it, but in its staunch opposition to the principle, his school is generally alone.
I am prepared to admit the shortcoming is probably all mine, but all this seems very curious to me.
But then there are other curious features of Br Tawfique’s analysis.
For example, I do not understand why his diagnosis of the conversation is that it is a product of “various movements” of the “modern age”, before admitting that the issue really begins with the likes of at-Tabari. Is he arguing that at-Tabari was some twentieth century secular feminist centuries ahead of his time? Surely not. Speaking for myself, the impression I get is of a discourse seeking to dismiss the alternative view as some kind of deviant, progressive and modernist thought without having to confront the diversity of traditional Islamic scholarship over the centuries. Perhaps that is not the intention – but it is my impression.
But the other feature of Br Tawfique’s response that surprises me, is that it does not seem really to present any direct evidence. It is largely a hit-parade of various scholars who disagreed with at-Tabari’s view and asserted the existence of an
ijma` on the issue. It does not demonstrate the textual prohibition of women leading prayers, or even deal with the question of the onus of proof. Instead, it is an appeal to the authority – not of primary Islamic texts – but of scholarly opinion generally, and the concept of
ijma` in particular.
Of course, that discourse brushes past
ijma` as a jurisprudential source. It does not unpack how
ijma` has been perceived differently by different scholars, and limited by different scholars. It therefore does not explore the limitations on invoking this principle to silence a dissenting view. We see no discussion whatsoever of the radical change in the perception of
ijma` that ash-Shafi`i brought (almost the reverse image of Abu Hanifah and Malik’s approach) to which Bok has referred.
Of course, the ambiguity surrounding the concept of
ijma` raises some fascinating questions. If
ijma` is binding, but there is no consensus on the meaning of
ijma`, and accordingly no definition of it is binding, then what are the implications for
ijma` as a binding principle. Fascinating legal metaphysics all this, but for now, beside the point, so sorry for the digression.
"Seeker said:
Amateur ijtihad always makes for entertaining reading.
Are you referring to the “amateur”
ijtihad of at-Tabari, or ath-Thawri? Or, if some traditional
`ulema from Syria to whom I spoke recently are to be believed, are you referring to al-Qurtubi?
Or perhaps you're referring to Br Tawfique's? Maybe you are because he might be the only one of these who is not a
mujtahid (in the traditional sense).
However, I suspect you're referring to Bok's. Fair enough. But if your objection is to the
ijtihad of an amateur, then I feel it would probably be worthwhile being even-handed: be entertained by everyone's contributions to the discussion.
”Seeker” said:
I would love to see the proposed deconstruction of br. Tawfique's response, as so far his efforts have been nothing short of a complete wreck-job.
I look forward to it as well. Seems to me there is a lot to discuss, and I anticipate there is much I can learn from it.
I only hope the discussion can proceed without the condescending warnings of self-proclaimed
mukar crushers.
Perhaps it might be best, when speaking to Bok, to keep in mind that we are also addressing at-Tabari's view - not just that of someone you can unfairly dismiss as modernist.
Ma salaama,
Shibshib.